I’m confused on whether verb agreement for “none” should be singular or plural. I know in your post you said that it depends. Some of the sources I’ve come across [http://data.grammarbook.com/blog/singular-vs-plural/none-were-vs-none-was/] and [http://www.majortests.com/sat/explain.php?exp=49303036243134243636] insist that the verb should always be singular. Could you please clarify this?
I remain steadfast that “none” can be either singular or plural, depending on context. I can’t recall an example of that being tested on a real SAT, though. That Majortests link is not a real question.
If the SAT ever says “None of the presents was as memorable” and wants you to consider that correct, then I guess I’ll have to eat my words, but until I see an actual SAT question like that, I’m not convinced.