I’m confused on whether verb agreement for “none” should be singular or plural. I know in your post you said that it depends. Some of the sources I’ve come across [http://data.grammarbook.com/blog/singular-vs-plural/none-were-vs-none-was/] and [http://www.majortests.com/sat/explain.php?exp=49303036243134243636] insist that the verb should always be singular. Could you please clarify this?
I remain steadfast that “none” can be either singular or plural, depending on context. I can’t recall an example of that being tested on a real SAT, though. That Majortests link is not a real question.
If the SAT ever says “None of the presents was as memorable” and wants you to consider that correct, then I guess I’ll have to eat my words, but until I see an actual SAT question like that, I’m not convinced.
Comments (1)
The current version of the SAT doesn’t test “none” in relation to subject-verb agreement (at least, like Mike, I’ve never seen a question testing it). Technically, it’s singular — “none” is a contraction of “not one” — but in real life a plural verb is often used. At this point, the correct version just sounds too odd. If it’s tested on the new exam, however, you can assume that the rule will be strictly applied.